In this question the OP quoted a number of domestic finance figures in USD. In the comments it was established that they did this with the intention of being helpful to the majority audience - so 'assuming good faith' is still very much intact - however the effect seems to have been to convince most commenters that the OP is American and operating under United States rules and norms.
I think the core of the question would be equally clear even if the figures were quoted in the OP's domestic currency, as such questions are usually more concerned with ratios rather than the purchasing power of a particular currency that the reader may not be familiar with, and the question would not be misleading as to location.
Is it constructive to politely - and possibly pre-emptively - ask the OP not to apply 'currency conversion'?
Is it constructive to proactively edit the question to undo such a conversion?